A hypothesis Ive encountered several times online, says that 5000to4000 yrs ago European men & women supposedly treated each other somewhat equally then Proto-Indo-European speakers took over & imposed patriarchy on to western civilization for the first time. Is there Any real validity to this idea?
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/7iuut5/comment/dr28i2u/
Did Ancient Romans descend from Proto Indo-Europeans?
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/13cu5d/did_ancient_romans_descend_from_proto/
Europe before the indo-europeans
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/13m0pm/europe_before_the_indoeuropeans/
How were the Indo-Europeans able to spread so far? Why did indigenous peoples in Europe and Southern Asia offer so little resistance to their migration?
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/14gccv/how_were_the_indoeuropeans_able_to_spread_so_far/
Proto-Indo-Europeans - Wikipedia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Europeans